Absence of stated condition does not necessitate the absence of a condition

Does an absence of stated condition necessitate the absence of a condition?

In the Bible, absence of STATED condition does not necessitate the absence of a condition. 

For example, if there is only one condition stated in a verse, it does not preclude that there can be other conditions specified in other passages that can apply. 

For example:

It is written with the conditional particle "IF": "IF your right EYE is-causing you to-fall, tear it out and throw (it) from you. For it-is-better (for) you that one (of) your body-parts perish and your whole body not be-thrown into Gehenna" (Matthew 5:29).

Here throwing "your right EYE" (Matthew 5:29) from you if it is causing you to fall is one STATED condition for your whole body not to be thrown into Gehenna. There are no other STATED conditions.

Yet in another verse, it is written with the conditional particle "IF": "IF your right HAND is-causing you to-fall, cut it off and throw (it) from you. For it-is-better (for) you that one (of) your body-parts perish and your whole body not go into Gehenna." (Matthew 5:30).

In this other verse, there is another condition that was not STATED in the first verse, that is: throwing "your right HAND" (Matthew 5:30) from you if it is causing you to fall for your whole body not to go into Gehenna. This condition was not STATED in the previous verse, only "your right EYE" (Matthew 5:29) was STATED, but not "your right HAND" (Matthew 5:30), yet the latter would also apply. 

This is why it is not because a condition is not STATED in a verse, that therefore there is an absence of condition.

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