Does someone repenting necessarily believe afterward?

Someone will not necessarily believe after repenting.

Jesus said: "REPENT, AND BELIEVE in the good-news" (Mark 1:15). Jesus separated "REPENT" & "BELIEVE" using the conjunction "AND". 

Jesus did not say to "REPENT so that you will BELIEVE", but Jesus said to "REPENT, AND BELIEVE" (Mark 1:15). 

Furthermore the Greek word for "REPENT" (Mark 1:15) and the Greek word for "BELIEVE" (Mark 1:15) are both in the imperative mood, which expresses a command to the hearer to perform something by the order and authority of the one commanding. Jesus commanded two things to the ones hearing Him, not just one thing. 

Paul said that he "solemnly-testifying both (to) Jews and (to) Greeks (as to) the REPENTANCE toward God AND FAITH in our Lord Jesus" (Acts 20:21). Jesus separated "REPENTANCE" & "FAITH" using the conjunction "AND". Paul also indicated there that REPENTANCE would be toward God, but that FAITH would be in Jesus. 

It is written in Hebrews about "REPENTANCE from dead works AND FAITH toward God" (Hebrews 6:1). REPENTANCE & FAITH are separated by the conjunction "AND". It is not written about "REPENTANCE from dead works so that you will have FAITH toward God", but it is written about "REPENTANCE from dead works AND FAITH toward God" (Hebrews 6:1). 

Paul said that "John baptized (a) baptism (of) REPENTANCE, saying (to) the people that THEY-MAY-BELIEVE in the (One) coming after him, that is, in Jesus" (Acts 19:4). Paul did not say that the baptism of REPENTANCE "will" make people to believe, but John said to the people that "THEY-MAY-BELIEVE" (Acts 19:4). The Greek word for "THEY-MAY-BELIEVE" (Acts 19:4) is in the Subjunctive mood, which is the mood of possibility and potentiality, meaning that the action described may or may not occur, depending upon other conditions.

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