1 John 1:8 - If we say we have not sin?

Does 1 John 1:8 have conditions?


1 John 1:8: "If we-say that WE-HAVE NOT SIN, we-are-deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us."

Conditions:

It is written in 1 John: "If we-say that WE-HAVE NOT SIN, we-are-deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us" (1 John 1:8). 

The expression "TO NOT HAVE SIN" is used several times in John, and may imply that it is conditional.

John 9:41

For example, Jesus said to some of the Pharisees, using the conditional particle "IF": "IF you-were blind (ones), YOU-WOULD NOT HAVE SIN. BUT you-are-saying now that ‘We-see’ — your SIN remains" (John 9:41). Here Jesus is saying that if they were blind ones, they would not have sin. In the context, they had seen a miracle from Jesus, and could not deny that the miracle happened. But because they are saying that they see, their sin remains. 

Jesus was saying to them that their "SIN remains" (John 9:41), but that could imply that He may have been stirring them in the direction for their sin NOT to remain, as in Him, sin is taken away. Indeed, earlier in John it was written about "Jesus" (John 1:29) that He was "the (One) TAKING-AWAY the SIN (of) the world" (John 1:29).

John 15:22

Jesus said, using the conditional particle "IF": "IF I-had not come and spoken (to) them, they (would) NOT BE-HAVING SIN. BUT now they-do not have (an) excuse for their SIN" (John 15:22). Here Jesus is saying that if He had not come and spoken to them, they would not be having sin. 

John 15:24

Jesus said, using the conditional particle "IF": "IF I-had not done among them the works which no other one did, they (would) NOT BE-HAVING SIN. BUT now they-have both seen and have-hated both Me and My Father" (John 15:24). Here Jesus is saying that if He had not done among them certain works, they would not be having sin. 

Further explanation & context in 1 John 1

It is written in 1 John: "If WE-SAY that WE-HAVE NOT SIN, we-are-deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us" (1 John 1:8). 

The specific terms used to say "WE-HAVE NOT SIN" (1 John 1:8) may imply (from other passages in John) that we were first confronted, and that confrontation would also make us to now have sin. This could be why the rest of the verse indicates that if we SAY we have not sin (under these conditions) "we-are-deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us" (1 John 1:8). 

The next verse may then indicate that instead of SAYING we have NOT sin (under these implied conditions), we could instead confess our sins so that our sin would not remain, as the next verse reads that "if WE-ARE-CONFESSING our sins, He-is faithful and righteous TO-FORGIVE US the sins AND CLEANSE US from all unrighteousness" (1 John 1:9). 


↺ Click here to return to the Table of Contents.

Comments

Popular Posts