Can there be a distinction between "faith" and "the faith"?

In the Bible "faith" and "the faith" can have a distinct meaning

In the Bible, "FAITH" could mean the act of believing or trusting. The Greek word used for "TO-BELIEVE" can also be reasonably translated as "TO-PUT-FAITH". For example, Paul wrote: "having the same spirit (of) FAITH in-accordance-with the (thing) having-been-written, “I-BELIEVED, therefore I-spoke” — we also BELIEVE, therefore we also speak" (2 Corinthians 4:13).

"THE FAITH" could mean the collective set of Christian teachings and truths. 

For example, for someone to depart from "THE FAITH" other teachings and lies could be propagated, as it is written: "some will-depart (from) THE FAITH, paying-attention-to deceitful spirits and TEACHINGS (OF) DEMONS by-means-of (the) hypocrisy (of) LIARS" (1 Timothy 4:1-2). In contrast, a few verses later it is written about "THE WORDS (OF) THE FAITH and THE GOOD TEACHING which you-have-closely-followed" (1 Timothy 4:6), which "THE WORDS" (1 Timothy 4:6) could be specifically "WORDS (of) TRUTH" (Acts 26:25) as Paul also wrote again to Timothy about "THE WORD (of) TRUTH" (2 Timothy 2:15).

"The faith" came around the time of John the Baptist and was once for all delivered

Paul wrote: "BEFORE THE FAITH CAME, we-were-being-guarded under (THE) LAW" (Galatians 3:23). Here "THE FAITH CAME" (Galatians 3:23) at some point, and "BEFORE" (Galatians 3:23) that "we-were-being-guarded under (THE) LAW" (Galatians 3:23). Jesus said that "THE LAW and the Prophets (WERE) UNTIL JOHN" (Luke 16:16), referring to John the Baptist. People would have been guarded under "(THE) LAW" (Galatians 3:23, Luke 16:16) until "JOHN" (Luke 16:16). It would thus have been at the time of John the Baptist that "THE FAITH CAME" (Galatians 3:23).

At the time "Jude" (Jude 1:1) wrote his epistle, "THE FAITH" would already have been delivered once-for-all, as Jude wrote "to-be-contending (for) THE FAITH HAVING-BEEN-DELIVERED ONCE-FOR-ALL (to) the holy (ones)" (Jude 1:3). Here "TO-BE-CONTENDING (for) THE FAITH" (Jude 1:3) could be understood interchangeably with what Paul indicated, as He wrote to be "CONTENDING-together (with) one soul (for) THE FAITH (OF) THE GOOD-NEWS" (Philippians 1:27). Here "THE FAITH" (Jude 1:3) would be the same as "THE FAITH (OF) THE GOOD-NEWS" (Philippians 1:27). 

"THE FAITH (OF) THE GOOD-NEWS" (Philippians 1:27) would have indeed started with John the Baptist, as Mark started his account by writing about "(The) BEGINNING (of) THE GOOD-NEWS" (Mark 1:1) and indicated 3 verses later that "JOHN came, the (one) baptizing in the wilderness" (Mark 1:4), referring to John the Baptist. This was already "(The) BEGINNING (of) THE GOOD-NEWS" (Mark 1:1) and thus also the beginning of "THE FAITH (OF) THE GOOD-NEWS" (Philippians 1:27).

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People had "faith" before the time of John the Baptist

In the Bible, "FAITH" could mean the act of believing or trusting. The Greek word used for "TO-BELIEVE" can also be reasonably translated as "TO-PUT-FAITH". This already happened to people before the time of John the Baptist. For example: "Abram BELIEVED God" (Genesis 15:6), "the people feared the LORD, and they BELIEVED in God and in Moses His servant" (Exodus 14:31), "the men of Nineveh BELIEVED God" (Jonah 3:5).

It is written in the Psalms: "I BELIEVED, therefore I spoke" (Psalms 116:10). Paul quoted this passage, saying that it was in accordance with the spirit of faith: "having the same spirit (of) FAITH in-accordance-with the (thing) having-been-written, “I-BELIEVED, therefore I-spoke” [Psalms 116:10] — we also BELIEVE, therefore we also speak" (2 Corinthians 4:13). Somebody could have "FAITH" (2 Corinthians 4:13) before the time of John the Baptist, even though "THE FAITH" would not have come already. This is because the two can be distinct in meaning. 

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