Is grace conditional?

Is grace conditional?



Grace can be given conditionally

God is giving GRACE upon meeting certain conditions. 

One condition is for example to be humble, as it is written: "GOD opposes (the) proud, but GIVES GRACE (TO THE) HUMBLE" (James 4:6, 1 Peter 5:5). Here someone who is "proud" (James 4:6, 1 Peter 5:5) would be opposed instead of being given "GRACE" (James 4:6, 1 Peter 5:5).



Grace can be accessed by faith

Paul wrote: "we-have the ACCESS (BY) FAITH INTO THIS GRACE in which we-stand" (Romans 5:2). 

Paul indicated that the access "into this GRACE in which WE-STAND" (Romans 5:2) is "(BY) FAITH" (Romans 5:2). Is it possible not to STAND anymore into this GRACE if the condition of FAITH is not met anymore? Yes, as for example Paul wrote elsewhere that "the LAW is not of FAITH" (Galatians 3:12) and so "You who are-(trying to be)-declared-righteous by (the) LAW were-rendered-not-working from Christ. You-FELL-out-of GRACE" (Galatians 5:4). Here people could not STAND into GRACE anymore and instead FELL out of it because they did not meet the condition of FAITH.

This is important because someone does not automatically have faith nor automatically continue to have faith.

For more information:
Does someone automatically believe?:
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Does faith automatically continue?:
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Grace can be received in vain (if labor does not follow)

After that grace is given and someone receives it, it is possible for that grace to be received in vain.

Paul wrote: "working-with (Him), we also ARE-APPEALING (THAT) YOU NOT RECEIVE the GRACE (of) God IN VAIN [kenos 2756 in Greek]" (2 Corinthians 6:1). 

Paul indicated in 1 Corinthians how to NOT receive the grace of God in vain, indicating that one needs to LABOR, as he wrote: "His GRACE toward me DID NOT BECOME VAIN [kenos 2756 in Greek]. BUT I-LABORED even more (than) them all" (1 Corinthians 15:10).

The labor that can follow the receiving of grace is not automatic.

For more information:
Are good works automatically produced?:
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Grace can discipline us conditionally?

Paul indicated the purpose of grace: "the GRACE (of) God appeared (bringing) salvation (for) all people, DISCIPLINING [paideia 3811 in Greek] us that having-denied non-worship and worldly desires, we-may-have-lived sound-mindedly and righteously and well-worshiping" (Titus 2:11-12). 

The Greek word for "DISCIPLINING [paideia 3811 in Greek]" (Titus 2:12) is the same Greek word used for example in the following verses: "(the one) whom (the) Lord loves He DISCIPLINES [paideia 3811 in Greek]" (Hebrews 12:6), "For what son (is there) whom (his) father does not DISCIPLINE [paideia 3811 in Greek]?" (Hebrews 12:7).

It is possible to for one to reject the DISCIPLINE of the LORD, as it is written in Jeremiah: "you DID NOT RECEIVE DISCIPLINE [paideia 3809 in Greek]" (Jeremiah 2:30) and "they DID NOT DESIRE TO RECEIVE DISCIPLINE [paideia 3809 in Greek]; they made their faces harder than rock; and they did not desire to be returned" (Jeremiah 5:3).



Grace can be affected by sin?

Paul wrote that "where SIN increased, GRACE SUPER-ABOUNDED" (Romans 5:20). Here Paul indicated that when SIN is increasing, GRACE abounds more. This makes sense because the GRACE of God DISCIPLINES us to deny lawlessness (which is sin) so that we may live righteously, as Paul wrote: "the GRACE (of) God appeared (bringing) salvation (for) all people, DISCIPLINING us that HAVING-DENIED NON-WORSHIP and worldly desires, WE-MAY-HAVE-LIVED sound-mindedly and RIGHTEOUSLY AND WELL-WORSHIPPING" (Titus 2:11-12). So when someone sins, the grace of God can abound to discipline such a person to deny their sin and live righteously instead. Paul thus asked the following question: "Should-we-be-continuing (in) SIN in-order-that GRACE MIGHT-INCREASE?" (Romans 6:1), and then gave an answer in the next verse: "May-it never be! How shall-we who DIED (to) SIN still live in it?" (Romans 6:2). 


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