What can "to sin" mean?
What can "to sin" mean?
"To-miss-the-aim" in the Old Testament?
The verb "TO SIN" can mean "TO MISS THE AIM" (or in other words, to miss the mark, to miss the goal).
There is a Hebrew verb for "TO SIN" [chata 2398 in Hebrews, verb].
It is for example used here in Judges: "the sons of Israel cried to YHWH, saying, We have SINNED [chata 2398 in Hebrews] against You, even because we have forsaken our God, and have served the Baals" (Judges 10:10).
The same Hebrew word for "TO SIN" [chata 2398 in Hebrews, verb] used in Judges 10:10 can be found in Judges 20:16 to describe left handed men being so accurate with their slings that they could aim at a hair and not "MISS", as it is written: "Out of all (this) people (were) left-handed (men); all these (could) sling with stones at a hair, and not MISS [chata 2398 in Hebrews]" (Judges 20:16).
"To-miss-the-aim" in the New Testament?
In ancient Greek manuscripts, the Greek word for "to-miss-the-aim" [astocheó 795 in Greek, verb] had for its origin the opposite of the Greek word for an "aim" [stoichos, no strong in Greek, noun]. The origin is thus the opposite of an "aim", which could be translated in English as an "opposite-of-the-aim" or a "miss-of-the-aim". Because the Greek word needs to be a verb, it could be translated as "to-hit-the-opposite-of-the-aim" or "to-miss-the-aim". It is a verb describing that the "aim" would be missed.
1 Timothy:
Paul wrote that "the end(-aim) (of the) command is love from (a) pure heart and good conscience and sincere faith, HAVING-MISSED-THE-AIM [astocheó 795 in Greek] (from) which (things) some turned-aside into worthless-talk" (1 Timothy 1:5-6).
The "end(-aim)" (1 Timothy 1:5) here "(of the) command" (1 Timothy 1:5) is "love from (a) pure heart and good conscience and sincere faith" (1 Timothy 1:5), but these people were described as "HAVING-MISSED-THE-AIM [astochēsantes 795 in Greek] (from) which (things)" (1 Timothy 1:6).
2 Timothy:
Paul wrote about "Hymenaeus and Philetus, who MISSED-THE-AIM [astocheó 795 in Greek] with-regard-to the truth, saying (that) the resurrection has already taken-place" (2 Timothy 2:17-18).
The aim here "with-regard-to the truth" (2 Timothy 2:18) would have been that "the resurrection" (2 Timothy 2:18) would not have "already taken-place" (2 Timothy 2:18), but these people "MISSED-THE-AIM [astocheó 795 in Greek] with-regard-to the truth, saying (that) the resurrection has already taken-place" (2 Timothy 2:18).
Can the aim also be the law?
Sin is lawlessness, as it is written that "SIN is LAWLESSNESS" (1 John 3:4).
For more information:
What is sin?:
To miss the aim could also be the miss the aim of the law.
There is a law in the new covenant, as Paul wrote that he was "not being without(-the)-Law (of) God, but within(-the)-law (of) Christ" (1 Corinthians 9:21) in the new covenant.
For more information about the law of Christ:
Is there a law in the new covenant?:
1 Timothy:
Paul wrote about "the end(-aim) (of the) COMMAND" (1 Timothy 1:5). Paul then contrasted that with those "HAVING-MISSED-THE-AIM [astocheó 795 in Greek]" (1 Timothy 1:5) who were "wanting to-be LAW-TEACHERS, not understanding either (the things) which they-are-saying or about what (things) they-are-confirming-thoroughly" (1 Timothy 1:7).
If "to sin" can mean to miss the aim, could the aim here be the law (that these people had missed, not understanding the things which they were saying about it?).
2 Timothy:
Paul wrote about people who "MISSED-THE-AIM [astocheó 795 in Greek] with-regard-to the TRUTH" (2 Timothy 2:18).
This could also be linked in some way to the Law, as Paul wrote about "(one) having the embodiment (of) knowledge and TRUTH in the LAW" (Romans 2:20).
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