What is death (from sin)?

Death is to be separated from life:

DEATH is the opposite of LIFE, as for example it is written: 

"the way-of-thinking (of) the flesh (is) DEATH, BUT the way-of-thinking (of) the Spirit (is) LIFE" (Romans 8:6).

"In (the) ways of righteousness is LIFE, BUT (the) ways of malicious (people leads) to DEATH" (Proverbs 12:28).

It could be possible to infer that to be DEAD is to be SEPARATED from LIFE. 

Death can come from sin:

James wrote: "SIN, having-been-completed, BRINGS-FORTH DEATH" (James 1:15).

Death (from sin) is to be separated from the life of God:

SINS can bring forth DEATH. 

DEATH can be a SEPARATION from LIFE. 

SINS can bring forth a SEPARATION from the LIFE of GOD specifically. 

Indeed, SINS can SEPARATE people from GOD specifically, as it is written: "your SINS ARE PASSING BETWEEN YOU AND GOD, and because of your sins He turned away His face from you" (Isaiah 59:2).

People who are DEAD in SINS can be described as "HAVING-BEEN-EXCLUDED (from) the LIFE (of) GOD" (Ephesians 4:18).

This can explain why SINS can have consequences over "eternal LIFE". The "LIFE (of) GOD" (Ephesians 4:18) is eternal, because "the eternal GOD" (Romans 16:26) has an "eternal LIFE" (Romans 6:23). 

For more information:

Can sinning have consequences over eternal life?:
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Death (from sin) is not the same as death (from passing away biologically):

There can be a distinction between DEATH FROM SIN, and DEATH FROM PASSING AWAY BIOLOGICALLY. 

The context of a passage can help determine which death is talked about.

Luke 9: 

Jesus said to someone: "“Be-following Me”. But the (one) said, “Master, permit me, having-gone, first TO-BURY MY FATHER”. But He-said (to) him, “Allow THE DEAD (ONES) TO-BURY THEIR (OWN) DEAD (ONES). But you, having-gone, be-proclaiming the kingdom (of) God”." (Luke 9:59-60). 

The above passage may be read [with added annotations]: "Allow THE DEAD ONES [from sin] TO-BURY THEIR OWN DEAD ONES [who passed away biologically]" (Luke 9:60). 

Further explanation:

Here someone said that he wanted first "TO-BURY" (Luke 9:59) his father, which would have indicated that his father would have passed away BIOLOGICALLY. 

Here "THE DEAD (ONES)" (Luke 9:60) that are "TO-BURY" (Luke 9:60) others could not themselves be people who would have passed away BIOLOGICALLY (otherwise they could not BURY other people). 

Jesus may have made a reference to people who were "DEAD (ONES)" from the LIFE of God, specifically because of their SINS. Indeed, in the context, Jesus told this man to "BE-FOLLOWING ME" (Luke 9:59). By FOLLOWING JESUS, this man would not have been separated from the LIFE of God, as Jesus Himself said: "I AM the way, and the truth, and THE LIFE. No-one comes to THE FATHER except through Me" (John 14:6). The man had to leave behind "THE DEAD (ONES)" (Luke 9:60) to not be counted among them and FOLLOW Jesus instead. 

Romans 7: 

Paul wrote: "I was once alive apart-from (the) Law. But the commandment having-come, SIN became-alive and I DIED" (Romans 7:9-10).

The above passage may be read [with added annotations]: "I was once alive apart from the Law. But the commandment having come, SIN became alive and I DIED [from sin] [while remaining alive biologically to write this after the fact]" (Romans 7:9-10). 

Further explanation:

Paul said "I was once alive" (Romans 7:9), but then because of "SIN" (Romans 7:9) he "DIED" (Romans 7:10) in the past tense. Because Paul is describing that he died in the past tense while still being alive BIOLOGICALLY to record that, this could describe a death from "SIN" (Romans 7:9). 

Several verses earlier, Paul also set in opposition "DEATH" because of "SIN" against "eternal LIFE", as he wrote: "the wages (of) SIN (is) DEATH , BUT the gift (of) God (is) eternal LIFE in Christ" (Romans 6:23).

1 Timothy 5: 

Paul wrote: "But the (one) living-indulgently HAS-DIED (while) LIVING" (1 Timothy 5:6). 

The above passage may be read [with added annotations]: "But the one living indulgently HAS DIED [from sin] while LIVING [biologically]" (1 Timothy 5:6). 

Further explanation:

Paul used the perfect tense in Greek (which is a past tense) to say that the one living indulgently "HAS-DIED" (1 Timothy 5:6). 

Even though this one has died in the past, yet this one is described to have died in the past "(while) LIVING" (1 Timothy 5:6) in the present tense.

This one would be LIVING biologically in the present tense, and yet this one "HAS-DIED" (1 Timothy 5:6) in the past, probably because of their SIN, as evidenced by the fact that they are "LIVING INDULGENTLY" (1 Timothy 5:6), which could be considered a SIN. 

1 John 3:14: 

It is written: "The (one) not loving his brother IS-ABIDING IN DEATH" (1 John 3:14). 

The above passage may be read [with added annotations]: "The one not loving his brother [while living biologically] IS ABIDING IN DEATH [from sin]" (1 John 3:14). 

Further explanation:

In this passage someone "not loving his brother" (1 John 3:14) would NOT have yet experienced DEATH FROM PASSING AWAY BIOLOGICALLY, so that person would be ALIVE BIOLOGICALLY, but that person could still be described as presently ABIDING in "DEATH" (1 John 3:14), suggesting that this DEATH would refer to another kind of DEATH.

Here "not loving his brother" (1 John 3:14) would be a SIN and "SIN, having-been-completed, BRINGS-FORTH DEATH" (James 1:15), a DEATH FROM SIN. 

The next verse even indicates that this "DEATH" (1 John 3:14) would refer to a SEPARATION from the eternal LIFE of God specifically, as it is written: "Everyone HATING HIS BROTHER is (a) murderer, and you-know that every murderer DOES NOT HAVE ETERNAL LIFE ABIDING IN him" (1 John 3:15).

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