How can people be declared righteous by God?
How can people be declared righteous by God?
People can be declared righteous multiple times?
Being DECLARED RIGHTEOUS (or "justified") can be described in the past tense, but also in the present tense and the future tense.
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Declared-righteous can be described in the past, present and future tense:
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There is evidence to suggest that people can be DECLARED RIGHTEOUS (or "justified") multiple times.
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Can someone be declared-righteous multiple times?:
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Based on this, people may have be initially declared righteous in the past, and may also be declared righteous beyond that.
Declared righteous from sin?:
People can be declared righteous FROM SIN specifically.
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Declared-righteous from what?:
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Declared righteous initially?:
Luke 18:
An example of someone initially declared righteous by God may be found in Luke 18.
Jesus said: "the tax-collector, standing at-a-distance, was not willing even to-lift-up (his) eyes to heaven, but was-striking his chest, SAYING, ‘God, be-merciful (to) me, the SINNING (one)!’ I-say (to) you, this (one) went-down to his house HAVING-BEEN-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Luke 18:13-14).
Here the "tax-collector" (Luke 18:13) confessed that he was a "SINNING (one)" (Luke 18:13). Upon his confession that he was SINNING, God would have been merciful and would have cleansed him of all unrighteousness, as it is written: "If WE-ARE-CONFESSING our SINS, He-is faithful and righteous to-forgive us the sins and CLEANSE US FROM ALL UNRIGHTEOUNESS" (1 John 1:9). Having been cleansed from all unrighteousness, and therefore having no more unrighteousness remaining in him, God would have declared him righteous, as just after this happened it is written that "this (one) went-down to his house HAVING-BEEN-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Luke 18:14).
Romans 4 (another time?):
This kind of way in which someone is declared righteous by confessing his sins could also happen another time after the person had already been declared righteous by God.
When referring to being "DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Romans 4:2), Paul quoted a passage from Psalms 32 written by David, as it is written "the (one) not working but putting-faith upon the (One) DECLARING-RIGHTEOUS the NON-WORSHIPPING — his faith is-credited for righteousness. JUST-AS DAVID ALSO SAYS (as to) the blessedness (of) the person (to) whom God credits righteousness apart-from works: “Blessed (are the ones) whose lawless(-deeds) WERE-FORGIVEN and whose SINS were-covered" (Romans 4:5-7).
In Psalm 32, David was recounting how he CONFESSED the SIN that he committed when he murdered someone, in which he wrote: "I acknowledged my sin, and I did not cover my iniquity. I said, “I will CONFESS my iniquity to the LORD against myself.” And You FORGAVE the NON-WORSHIPPING (state) of my SIN" (Psalm 32:5).
Upon his confession that he committed a "SIN" (Psalm 32:5), God would have been merciful and would have cleansed him of all unrighteousness, as it is written: "If WE-ARE-CONFESSING our SINS, He-is faithful and righteous TO-FORGIVE us the SINS AND CLEANSE US FROM ALL UNRIGHTEOUNESS" (1 John 1:9). Having been cleansed from all unrighteousness, and therefore having no more unrighteousness remaining in him, God would have "DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Romans 4:2) David.
This may not have been the first time when David would have been declared righteous by God, as he may have been declared righteous by God prior to this event.
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Can someone be declared-righteous multiple times?:
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David here would have been "NOT WORKING" (Romans 4:5) to be forgiven, as confessing (words) can be described as distinct from a work.
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Is everything a work?:
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Beyond being declared righteous initially?
Galatians 5:
Paul wrote: "You who ARE-BEING-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS BY (THE) LAW were-rendered-not-working from Christ. You-fell-out-of grace" (Galatians 5:4).
Paul wrote that people "ARE-BEING-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Galatians 5:4) in the present tense in contrast to "You-fell-out-of" (Galatians 5:4) which are in the aorist tense (indicative), indicating something that happened in the past.
Beyond being initially declared-righteous?
The sons of God through faith in Galatia might already have been DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS in the past (by GRACE).
Yet they may have been expected to be DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS in the present as well, but by not using the proper way to be declared righteous they "fell-out-of GRACE" (Galatians 5:4).
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Can someone be declared-righteous multiple times?:
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The "law"... would refer to the law of Moses specifically here?
Paul wrote to the Galatians in the present tense that they "ARE-BEING-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS BY (THE) LAW" (Galatians 5:4).
If only the term "THE LAW" is used in a verse, one must determine which law it is referring to by looking at the context, as depending on the context it can refer to different things.
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The term "law" can refer to different things:
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Here it would refer specifically about the law of Moses, as for example in the previous verse "RECEIVING-CIRCUMCISION" is mentioned in connection to the "LAW", as it is written: "every man RECEIVING-CIRCUMCISION that he-is (a) debtor to-do the whole LAW" (Galatians 5:3).
Jesus said: "(a) man RECEIVES CIRCUMCISION [...] IN-ORDER-THAT THE LAW (OF) MOSES may not be-broken" (John 7:23).
It would have been wrong of them to try be declared righteous by the law of Moses:
It would have been wrong for the Galatians in the present tense to "BEING-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS BY (THE) LAW" (Galatians 5:4), which would have referred to the law of Moses specifically, as it was then said to them that they "were-rendered-not-working from Christ. You-fell-out-of grace" (Galatians 5:4).
This is therefore not a way that God is declaring righteous people in the present tense. Yet an indication might be given in this passage in Galatians 5 on something important for people to consider to be DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS in the present tense instead.
Being declared righteous in the present tense by "grace"?
Paul mentioned: "You-fell-out-of GRACE" (Galatians 5:4) after people were trying in the present tense to "BEING-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS BY (THE) LAW" (Galatians 5:4).
Could "GRACE" (Galatians 5:4) be a means by which someone is "BEING-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Galatians 5:4)?
Paul wrote that "the GRACE (of) God appeared (bringing) salvation (for) all people, DISCIPLINING [paideia 3811 in Greek] us that HAVING-DENIED NON-WORSHIP and worldly desires, WE-MAY-HAVE-LIVED sound-mindedly and RIGHTEOUSLY and well-worshiping" (Titus 2:11-12).
The "GRACE (of) God" (Titus 2:11) is said to be "DISCIPLINING [paideia 3811 in Greek] us" (Titus 2:12), which is the same Greek word used for example in the following verses in Hebrews 12: "(the one) whom (the) Lord loves He DISCIPLINES [paideia 3811 in Greek]" (Hebrews 12:6).
So the "GRACE (of) God" (Titus 2:11) will DISCIPLINE us so that we may live "RIGHTEOUSLY" (Titus 2:12), like it is also implied in Hebrews 12: "all DISCIPLINE [paideia 3809 in Greek] for the present does not seem to-be (a thing of) joy, but (of) grief — BUT LATER (IT) GIVE-BACK (the) peaceful fruit (of) RIGHTEOUSNESS (to) the (ones) having-been-trained by it" (Hebrews 12:11).
If we receive this "DISCIPLINE" (Hebrews 12:11) coming from the "GRACE (of) God" (Titus 2:11), we can end up living "RIGHTEOUSLY" (Titus 2:12), and so as a result God could DECLARE us RIGHTEOUS. This would have been done by His GRACE.
Being declared righteous in the present tense by "faith working through love"?
Paul wrote that it would have been wrong for the Galatians in the present tense to "BEING-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS BY (THE) LAW" (Galatians 5:4), which would have referred to the law of Moses specifically, mentioning for example in the previous verse "RECEIVING-CIRCUMCISION" (Galatians 5:3).
But Paul contrasted this a few verses later, writing that in the present tense: "FOR in Christ Jesus NEITHER CIRCUMCISION nor uncircumcision CAN-DO ANYTHING, BUT FAITH WORKING THROUGH LOVE" (Galatians 5:6).
How could "FAITH WORKING THROUGH LOVE" (Galatians 5:6) make one "BEING-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Galatians 5:4)?
Regarding "FAITH" (Galatians 5:6), Paul wrote: "the RIGHTEOUS (one) shall-live out-of FAITH" (Romans 1:17).
Regarding "WORKING" (Galatians 5:6), it is written: "the (one) DOING righteousness is RIGHTEOUS" (1 John 3:7).
"Grace" linked to "faith working through love"?
Paul wrote in Galatians 5:4-6 about "BEING-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Galatians 5:4), "GRACE" (Galatians 5:4) and "FAITH WORKING THROUGH LOVE" (Galatians 5:6).
Could there be a link between "GRACE" and "FAITH"?
Paul wrote somewhere else that "we-have the ACCESS (BY) FAITH INTO THIS GRACE in which we-stand" (Romans 5:2).
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Is grace conditional?:
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Could there be a link between "GRACE" and "WORKING"?
After having access into this GRACE (by FAITH), one may abound in good WORKS, as Paul wrote: "God is-able to-cause all GRACE to-abound to you in-order-that in everything, always having all sufficiency, you-may-be-abounding for every good WORKS" (2 Corinthians 9:8).
Future tense? Beyond being declared righteous initially:
Romans 2:
Paul wrote "all-who SINNED under (the) Law WILL-BE-JUDGED by (the) Law. For not the hearers (of) law (are) righteous before God, but the doers (of the) law WILL-BE-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Romans 2:12-13).
"Will be judged" and "will be declared righteous"?
Here Paul may be connecting "WILL-BE-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Romans 2:13) in the future tense to when people "WILL-BE-JUDGED" (Romans 2:12).
Paul mentioned several verses earlier a future "RIGHTEOUS-JUDGMENT (of) God, Who will-give-back (to) each (one) according-to his works — (to) the (ones) seeking glory and honor and incorruptibility in-accordance-with endurance (in) good work, (He will-give-back) ETERNAL LIFE" (Romans 2:5-7).
This is similar to a future judgement described in Matthew 25, in which it is written that "the RIGHTEOUS (ones will go) to ETERNAL LIFE" (Matthew 25:46).
The "doers"... in endurance in good work?
Paul wrote that "the DOERS" (Romans 2:13) of the law "WILL-BE-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Romans 2:13).
This can be consistent with a future "RIGHTEOUS-JUDGMENT (of) God, Who will-give-back (to) each (one) according-to his WORKS" (Romans 2:5-6), adding that this is about "endurance (in) good WORK" (Romans 2:7).
The "law"... would refer specifically to the law of Christ here?
Paul indicated that it was about being a doer of "(THE) LAW" (Romans 2:13).
If only the term "THE LAW" is used in a verse, one must determine which law it is referring to by looking at the context, as depending on the context it can refer to different things.
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The term "law" can refer to different things:
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There is a law in the new covenant, as Paul wrote that he was "not being without(-the)-Law (of) God, but within(-the)-law (of) Christ" (1 Corinthians 9:21) in the new covenant.
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Is there a law in the new covenant?:
The "LAW" (Romans 2:13) in connection to which people "WILL-BE-JUDGED" (Romans 2:12) may be specifically THE LAW OF CHRIST.
Christ said Himself that "The (one) rejecting Me and not receiving My words has (that which) judges him — THE WORD WHICH I-SPOKE, THAT WILL-JUDGE HIM at the last day" (John 12:48).
The "doers of the law"?
Paul wrote that people people "WILL-BE-JUDGED" (Romans 2:12) in the future, and then mentioned those who are "THE DOERS (OF THE) LAW" (Romans 2:13)
Jesus similarly said about a future judgment that "Many will-say (to) Me on that day, ‘Lord, Lord, did-we not prophesy (in) Your name, and cast-out demons (in) Your name, and do many miracles (in) Your name?’ And then I-will-declare (to) them that ‘I never knew you. DEPART FROM ME, (ones) WORKING LAWLESSNESS’. THEREFORE everyone who hears THESE WORDS (OF) MINE AND IS-DOING THEM will-be-like (a) wise man" (Matthew 7:22-24).
Here Jesus would contrast those "WORKING LAWLESSNESS" (Matthew 7:23) with the DOERS of His law.
For more information on Matthew 7:22-24:
Matthew 7:21-23 - I never knew you, ones working lawlessness?:
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A RIGHTEOUS person can be described in opposition with a LAWLESS person, as Paul for example opposed something "not laid-down (for a) RIGHTEOUS (one) BUT (for) LAWLESS (ones)" (1 Timothy 1:9).
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Descriptions of a righteous person:
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"THE DOERS (OF THE) LAW WILL-BE-DECLARED-RIGHTEOUS" (Romans 2:13) because they would not be "(ones) WORKING LAWLESSNESS" (Matthew 7:23) who would be "LAWLESS (ones)" (1 Timothy 1:9), but instead they would be "RIGHTEOUS" (1 Timothy 1:9) ones.
A future judgement is described in Matthew 25, in which the doers of some particular works will be highlighted, as Jesus "will-say (to) the (ones) on His right (side), ‘Come, the (ones) having-been-blessed (of) My Father — inherit the kingdom having-been-prepared (for) you from (the) foundation (of the) world. FOR I-was-hungry, and YOU-GAVE ME (SOMETHING) TO-EAT. I-thirsted, and YOU-GAVE-A-DRINK (TO) ME. I-was (a) stranger, and YOU-BROUGHT ME IN; naked, and YOU-CLOTHED ME. I-was-sick, and YOU-LOOKED AFTER ME. I-was in prison, and YOU-CAME TO ME’" (Matthew 25:34-36). The next verse then described those as "THE RIGHTEOUS (ONES)" (Matthew 25:37).
Those are set in contrast with the ones who were not doers of these particular works, as it is then written that "He-will-say also (to) the (ones) on (the) left (side), ‘DEPART FROM ME, the (ones) having-been-cursed, into the eternal fire having-been-prepared (for) the devil and his angels. FOR I-was-hungry, and YOU-DID NOT GIVE ME (SOMETHING) TO-EAT. I-thirsted, and YOU-DID NOT GIVE-A-DRINK (TO) ME. I-was (a) stranger, and YOU-DID NOT BRING ME IN; naked, and YOU-DID NOT CLOTHE ME; sick, and in prison, and YOU-DID NOT LOOK AFTER ME’." (Matthew 25:41-43).
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